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390 HS Boys in Armed Forces

Union Public Service Commission Exam Notice No ; 3/2017. NDA-I dt : 18.1,17. I .


UPSC will be conducting the above exam on 23.4.17 for admission to the Army, Navy and Air Force wings of the NDA for the 139th Course and for the 101th Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC) commencing 2.1.18.

No. of posts : 390 [NDA-335 (208 for the Army, 55 for Navy, 72 for the Air Force and 55 for INA (10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme)].


Only unmarried male candidates are eligible to apply.

Qun : (i) For Army wing -ef National Defence Academy : 12th Class pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent examination conducted by a State Education Board or a University.

(il) For Air Force and Naval Wings of National Defence Academy and for the 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme Course at INA: 12th Class pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education Or equivalent with Physics and Mathematics conducted by a State Education Board or a University.

Candidates who are appearing in the 12th Class under the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent examination can also apply.

Age: Born not earlier than 2.7.98 and not later than 1.7.2001.

The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognized by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University which must be certified by the proper authority of the University or In the Higher Secondary or an equivalent examination certificate. These certificates are required to be submitted only after the. declaration of the result of the written part,of the examination. No other document relating, to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records’ and the like will be accepted.

Physical stds : Candidates must be in good physical and mental health and free from any disease/disability which is likely to interfere with the efficient performance of militarily duties. Should be no evidence 6f weak constitution, bodily defects or under weight. Should not be over weight or obsess.

The minimum acceptable height is 157.5 cms (162.5 cms for Air force). For Gorkhas and individuals belonging to hills of north eastern regions of India, Garhwal- and Kumaon, the minimum acceptable heights will be 5 cms. less. In case of candidates from Lakshadweep ;the minimum acceptable height can be reduced by 2 cms.

Chest should be well developed. Fully expanded chest should not be less Jhap 81; cms.’ The minimum ft range of expansion after full inspiration should be 5 cms. The. measurement will be taken with a tape so adjusted that is lower edge should touch the nipple in front and upper part of the tape should touch the lower angle I of the shoulder blades behind. X-Ray of the chest is compulsory and will be taken to rule out any disease of the chest.

There should be no maldevelopment or Impairment of function of the bones or joint. A candidate should have no past history of mental breakdown or fits.

Find out more details about physical fitness and procedure at official website.


Nursing Degree Course At Central Govt. Institution


Only females are eligible.

Qun : Senior School Certificate Examination or Indian School Certificate Examination (12 Years Course) or an Examination recognized as equivalent there to with 50% more marks in the aggregate of 4 subjects Including English Core/M Elective, Physics, Chemistry and Biology provided the student has passed in each subjects separately. Those who have appeared in S.S.C  or Equivalent examination with Physics, Chemistry, Biology and English in, 2017 are eligible for applying for admission to Selection Test.

Minimum age requirement is 17 years by 1st October, 2017


Admission will be made on the basis of merit based on Selection Test to be held on 11th June, (Sunday), 2017 at 10:00 A.M at the venue mentioned in the Admission Ticket. Names of the if selected candidates will be put on the College Notice Board and web site on the dates as declared in the Prospectus. No ‘Correspondence /Telephonic information in this connection will be entertained. Prescribed application forms with prospectus for the Session 2017/18 can be obtained from R.A.K. College of Nursing, Lajpat Nagar, New Delhi – 110024 on payment of Rs.550/~ by Demand Draft in favour of. Principal, Rajkumari Amrit Kaur College of Nursing. Students should strictly apply on the application form* issued by the College for the Session 2017-18.

APPLICATION FORMS OF PREVIOUS YEARS $ILL NOT BE ENTERTAINED. Prospectus will be available from 7th March 2017 to 21st April, 2017. Last date for submission of application is 21st April, 2017 by 4:00 P.M.

Application form can also be downloaded from the website from 07/03/2017  to 21/04/2017 and should be submitted in the college till 21/04/2017 on payment of Rs. 550/- by Demand Draft in favour of Principal, Rajkumari Amrit Kaur College of Nursing.



6945 Apprentices in 19 Ordnance Factories

Continuing with our last issue’s coverage further details are now being provided. Ordnance Factory Board, Ministry of Defenses, Govt, of India.

55th Batch (for Non-ITI & ITI candidates) of Trade Apprentices under the ‘Apprentices Act 1961’ in Ordnance & Ordnance Equipment Factories located in different States across India.

No. of apprentices to be engaged is 6948 (ITI -3621; Non-ITI -3327).

West’s Bengal’s Share – 782 in four Ordnance Factories –

1. Gun & Shell Factory, Cossipore – 270

2. Metal & Steel Factory, Ishapore -195

3. Ordnance Facgory, Dum Dum – 61

4. Rifle Factory, Ishapore – 256. Factory-wise distribution in total are available in VACANCY TABLE below. ESSENTIAL QUALIFICATION (as on 7.2.17)


(a). For Non-ITI Category – Passed “Madhyamrk” (Class: 10th standard or equivalent) with minimum 40% marks in aggregate with 40% marks in each of mathematics & Science.

(b). For ITI Category – Should have passed ITI / trade test from any institute recognized by NCVT (SCVT or any other authority specified through Gazette Notification of Ministry of Labour &Employment / Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, with duration as per the Apprentice Act, 1961) and should possess the qualification of the closing date of application.

Age : 14-22 yrs. on 7.2.17.

Relaxation in Upper age limit is permitted as under:

(a) For SC / ST Candidates – 5 years.

(b) For OBC candidates – 3 years.

(c) For Physically Handicapped (PH) / Physically Challenged (PC) or Differently Abled Candidates – Additional 10 years.

(d) For ITI Candidates – Upper age limit is relaxable by the period of training already undergone as per the normal duration of NCVT/ SCVT, in the relevant trade.

Stipend : As per rules, taking into account the following parameters.

During the 1 st year of training – 70% of minimum wages of Semi-Skilled workers notified by the respective state or Union Territory.

During the 2nd year of training – 80% of minimum wages of Semi-Skilled workers notified by the respective state or Union Territory.

During the 3rd year of training – 90% of minimum wages of Semi-Skilled workers notified I by the respective state or Union Territory.

No other allowances will be paid during the entire period of Apprenticeship training. f However, in case of Ex-ITI candidates, period of already undergone by them will be considered for the purpose of determining the stipend.

STANDARD OF PHYSICAL FITNESS : As per the Schedule-ll of the Apprentices Act, 1961 r and the disability Act, 1995.

MEDICAL EXAMINATION : Will be conducted by the respective Ordnance Factory (for the selected candidates only). Date, Time and Venue of Medical Examination will be communicated separately by the respective factory only.

OFFER & ACCEPTANCE OF EMPLOYMENT: It shall not be obligatory on the part of the Employer to differ any employment to any Apprentice after completion of the training, not shall it be obligatory for the Apprentices to accept any employment, if offered by the •f Employer. The candidates’are advised to get themselves familiarized with the rules and regulations under the Apprentices Act, 1961 and the disability Act, 1995. However,^as per 1 current executive order of MOD/OFB, extra 5 marks “which is under litigation as on date” may be given to Ex-trade apprentices in the final merit list of the written examination conducted for a total of 100 marks for recruitment of Industrial Employees in Ordnance Factories, separately when vacancies are advertised after completion of Trade Apprenticeship from any of the Ordnance Factories.

Important Instruction for PH (VH) and PH (OH) candidates

(a) One eyed candidates and partially blind candidates who are able to read the normal Question Paper set for all the candidates with or without magnifying glass and who wish to write/indicate the answer with the help of Magnifying Glass will be allowed to use the I Magnifying Glass in the Examination Hall and will not be entitled to a Scribe. Such candidates will have to bring their own Magnifying Glass to the Examination Hall. (b) Visually handicapped (VH) candidates and candidates suffering from Cerebral Palsy can avail the assistance of a SCRIBE in the Written Examination subject to such requests being made in the application forms. Question Papers and Answer Sheets will not be provided in BRAILLE.

(c) Assistance for Scribe: The candidate should indicate the request for scribe while filling the application form. There is a separate application for scribe in which the candidate is required to be filled up his scribe details including ID. Selection procedure – Through Written Test, No interview will be conducted.

The written examination will be as follows :

For Non-ITI Candidates: Written Test (One Paper of 3 hours duration, total questions 150) consisting of questions on English, General Knowledge, Mathematics and Aptitude/ Reasoning, as per Madhyamik ( Class: Xth Standard or equivalent).

For ITI Candidates : Written Test (one paper consisting of 2 parts of 3 hours duration, total questions 150) PART A : Questions on English, General Knowledge, Mathematics and I Aptitude/Reasoning approx. 40% out of total number of questions.

PART – B : Questions in the group of subject trades – approx. 60% out of total number I of questions.

Examination will be conducted on ‘Multiple Choice Objective Type Test on OMR sheet. There I will be no negative marking.

MEDIUM OF EXAMINATION : 3 Languages formula: candidate can choose English or Hindi I or language of the state in which ordnance factory chosen by the,candidate is located I (Bengali/ Marathi/ Oriya/ Tamil/ Telugu).

CENTRE OF EXAMINATION : Centre will be allotted w.r.t. location of the ordnance factory I and medium of examination chosen by the candidate in one of the 12 centres viz.

Bhubaneswar, Chennai, Coimbatore, Delhi, Hyderabad, Jabalpur Kolkata, Kanpur, Mumbai, I Nagpur, Pune and Trichy.

MERIT LIST : Merit list for all candidates will be published on the website where the application form was submitted. In the event of tie in total marks obtained by the candidates, I following criterion will be followed to decide position:

For Non ITI-Candidates – by age seniority

For ITI-Candidates –

(i). Higher Marks in Part-B

(ii). Age Seniority

(iii). If the ties, still persists, its is finally resolved by referring to the alphabetical order of the names i.e. a candidates whose names begins with the alphabet which comes first in the alphabetical order gets preference.

After the written examination is over, the question paper and answer keys will be uploaded on the website within 2 days. If any candidate wants to contest the uploaded answer keys, the candidate can do so within 7 days along with supporting documents ONLY after paying the prescribed fees of Rs 100/- for each question contested online. After the stipulated period is over, no contest shall be entertained.

Candidates are not required to pay any fee for the examination.

Application procedure –

Candidate must apply online ONLY directly through the website: While filling up the application form through website, the applicant must be ready with the following-

(a) Scan copy of signature (10Kb – 20Kb)

(b) Colour passport size photo (15Kb – 40Kb) ,

(c) Scanned picture of Left Thumb Impression (10Kb-20Kb) – all in JPG/JPEG format. Candidates must also follow the detailed instructions, which is available on the website while filling up the application form.

They should keep a copy of the Application printout. Candidates are not required to send hard copy of application to the respective Factory/unit. However, the same will have to be produced by the candidates at the time of document verification in the respective Factory / unit.

Admit cards are to be downloaded by the candidates from website.

The schedule for date of downloading the admit card and date of written examination will be notified on the website. In case of any change in schedule of dates, amendment etc. the same will be made available on the website.

Changes in dates or in the recruitment process or any OTHER changes will be notified on the OFB link/ Dedicated Examination website to the prospective candidates. There will not be any separate intimation in this regard. The candidates are advised to check Web-site regularly to take notice.

Notice to candidates whorhave successfully applied will be notified on the website itself


School Service Gr D & Clerk Exam Date Finalized

The West Bengal Central School Service Commission has announced the exam of 3rd REGIONAL LEVEL


The written examinations in respect of aforementioned Selection Tests will be held as per following schedule :

(a) Gr. D – 19th February, 2017 (Sunday) from 12.00 noon to 1.00pm.

(b) Clerk – 5th March. 2017(Sunday) from 12.00noon to 1.00pm.

Further details will be notified in due course.

Kee track of the latest developments through



120 Trainees in NTPC via GATE 17


120 Engineering Executive Trainees in various disciplines through GATE -2017.

Discipline-wise distribution –

1. Electrical: 40

2. Mechanical: 50

3. Civil: 10

4. Electronics & Instrumentation : 20

Educational Qualification : Full time bachelor degree in engineering or Technology/ AMIE with not less than 65 % marks in relevant disciplines.

Age Limit : 27 years as on the last date of receipt of application.

Usual relaxations for reserved categories.


Selection Process : Candidates will be selected based on GATE-2017, Online Aptrtudde Test. Group Discussion, Personal Interview.

Application Fee: Rs. 150/- Registration fee for General/ OBC candidates online through Net Banking/ Debit card/ Credit card or Offline through pay in Slip available at nearest SBI Branch. No fee for SC/ ST/ PWD/ XSM candidates.

Applications are to be made online only through the website – till 31-01-2017.

Last Date for Submission of Online Application Form: 31-01-2017. 

All further necessary details are available In website. Consult them before applying.


210 PO In South India Bank Ltd.

Probationary Officers in all India basis.

No. of posts : 201

Minimum Educational Qualification as on 31.12.2016 – X / SSLC : 60% and above, XII / HSC E: 60 % and above, Graduation, : Pass in Graduation under 10+2+3/4 regular course with ‘ 60% and above.

Candidate should have passed graduation under 10+2+3/4 regular course from a recognized University or Institute recognized by the Govt, of India.

If Grade / CGPA is awarded instead of marks, only candidates securing UGPA / Grade equivalent to 60% or more may apply. Equivalent percentage should be mentioned!! the time of application. Those who have scow less than 60% marks will not be eligible for applying. Rounding off to the nearest integer is not allowed, (for e.g. 59.99% cannot be rounded off to 60%).


Age limit: 25 years as on 31.12.2016. Candidate should be born on or after 01.01.1992 and on or before 31.12.1996.

Upper age limit will be relaxed by 5 years in the case of SC / ST candidates.

3 years of age relaxation for candidates having minimum 2 years of experience as Clerk/ Officer in Scheduled Commercial Banks (Public Sector/ Private Sector).

Probation, Pay, Posting – The period of probation is 2 years. Confirmation will be subject to satisfactory performance during probation.

IBA approved pay scale of Rs. 23700 – 42020 plus DA* HRA & other allowances. Eligible for performance linked incentive applicable to Scale I officers as per the scheme in vogue.

Posting Location can be anywhere in India at the sole discretion of the Bank. Postings will be done on a zonal basis as per the policies and practices followed by the Bank from time to time. Officers posted to one particular <!one will have to serve there for a minimum stipulated period.

Selection procedure – Online Test, Group Discussion and Personal Interview > The final selection shall be made on the basis of Personal Interview. State-wise-Online Test Centers –

1. Assam – Guwahati

2. Bihar – Patna

3. Jharkhand – Jamshedpur, Ranchi

4. Meghalaya – Shillong

5. Mizoram – Alzawl

6. Odlsha – Bhubaneshwar, Cuttack

7. Sikkim – Gangtok M.

8. West Bengal – Bardhaman, Durgapur, Greater Kolkata, Howrahi Kolkata, Slliguri. BIOMETRIC DATA – Capturing and Verification -South Indian Bank authorities will capture the biometric d&ta (thumb impression) and the photograph of the candidates on the day of the Examination .The biometflc data and photograph will be verified subsequently. Decision of the Biometric data verification of authority with regard to its status (matched or mismatched) shall be final and binding upon the candidates.

Candidates are advised to take care of the following points in order to ensure a smooth process.

– If fingers are coated (stamped ink/mehndi/ coloured etc), ensure to thoroughly wash them so that coating is completely removed before the exam.

– If fingers are dirty or dusty, ensure to wash them and dry them before the finger print (biometric) is captured.

– Ensure fingers of both hands are dry. If fingers are moist, wipe each finger to dry them.

– If the primary finger (thumb) to be captured is injured/ damaged, immediately notify the concerned authority in the test centre. In such cases impression of other fingers, toes etc may be captured.


General Category – Rs. 700/-

SC / ST category – Rs. – 150/-

DOWNLOAD OF CALL LETTER – Candidates will have f to visit the Bank’s website ‘’ for downloading call letters for online test. Intimation for downloading call letter will also be sent through email/SMS. Once the candidate clicks the relevant link, he/ she can access the window for call letter download.

The candidate is required to use (i) Registration Number/Roll Number, (II) Password/Dale of Birth for downloading the call letter. Candidate needs to affix recent recognizable photograph on the call letter preferably the same as provided during registration and appear at the examination centre with (1) Call Letter (ii) Photo Identity Proof as stipulated in clause (xii) below and also specified in the call letter and photocopy of the same Photo Identity Proof as brought in original.

IDENTITY VERIFICATION – In the examination hall as well as at the time of Interview, the call letter along with origin#! and a photocopy of the candidate’s currently valid photo identity (bearing exactly the same name as It appears on the call letter) such as PAN Card / Passport / Driving Licence / Voter’s Card / Bank Passbook with photograph / Photo identity proof Issued by a Gazzetted Officer on official letterhead along with photograph / Photo identity proof issued by a People’s Representative on official letterhead along with photograph / valid recent Identity Card Issued by a recognized College / University / Aadhar card / E-Aadhar Card with a photograph Employee ID / Bar Council Identity Card with photograph should be submitted to the invigilator for verification. The candidate’s identity will be verified with respect to his/her details on the call letter, in the Attendance List and requisite documents submitted.

Ration Card is not a valid id proof for this project.

Application procedure – Only online mode.

Before applying online, candidates should –

(I). Scan their photograph and signature ensuring that both the photograph and signature adhere to the required specifications as given under Guideline for photograph & signature scan and upload.

(II). Have a valid personal email ID and mobile no., which should be kept active till the completion of this Recruitment Process. Bank may send intimation to download call letters for the Examination etc. through the registered e-mail ID. In case

candidate does not have a valid personal e-mail ID, he/she should create his/her new e-mail ID and mobile no. before applying on-line and must maintain that email account and mobile number.

Application Procedure –

Candidates to go to the Bank’s website click on the option “APPLY ONLINE” which will open a new screen.

To register application, choose the tab “Click here for New Registration’ and enter Name, Contact details and Email-id. A Provisional Registration Number and Password will be generated by the system and displayed on the screen. Candidate should note down the Provisional Registration Number and Password. An Email & SMS indicating the Provisional Registration number and Password will also be sent.

3. In case the candidate is unable to complete the application

form in one go, he / she can save the data already entered by choosing “SAVE AND NEXT” tab. Prior to submission of the online application candidates are advised to use the “SAVE AND NEXT” facility to verify the details in the onlirje application form and modify the same if required. Visually Impaired candidates should fill the application form carefully and verify/ get the details verified to ensure that the same are correct prior to final submission. j

4. Candidates pre advised to carefully fill and verify the details filled in the online application themselves as no change will be possible/ entertained after clicking the FINAL SUBMIT BUTTON.

5. The Name of the candidate or his /her Father/ Husband etc. should be spelt correctly in the application as it appears in the Certificates/ Mark sheets/identity proof. Any change/alteration found may disqualify the candidature.

6. Validate your details and Save your application by clicking the ‘Validate your details’ and ‘Save & Next’ button.

7. Candidates can proceed to upload Photo & Signature as per the specifications given in the Guidelines for Scanning and Upload of Photograph and Signature detailed under point “C”.

8. Candidates can proceed to fill other details of the Application Form.

9. Click on the Preview Tab to preview and verify the entire application form before FINAL SUBMIT.

10. Modify details, if required, and click on ‘FINAL SUBMIT’ ONLY after verifying and ensuring that the photograph, signature uploaded and other details filled by you are correct.

11. Click on Payment’ Tab and proceed for payment..

12. Click on ‘Submit1 button.

Payment of Fees -ONLNE MODE

1. The application form is integrated with the payment gateway and the payment process can be completed by following the Instructions.

2. The payment can be made by using Debit Cards (RuPay / Visa / MasterCard / Maestro), Credit Cards, Internet Banking, IMPS, Cash Cards / Mobile Wallets.

3. After submitting your payment Information in the online application form, PLEASE WAIT FOR THE INTIMATION FROM THE SERVER. DO NOT PRESS BACK OR REFRESH BUTTON IN ORDER TO AVOID DOUBLE CHARGE.

4. On successful completion of the transaction, an e-Receipt will be generated.

5. Non-generation of ‘E-Receipt indicates PAYMENT FAILURE. On failure of payment, Candidates are advised to login again Using their Provisional Registration Number and Password and repeat the process of payment.

6. Candidates are required to take a printout of the e-Receipt and online Application Form. Please note that if the same cannot be generated, online transaction may not have been successful.

7. For Credit Card users: All charges are listed In Indian Rupee. If you use a non-Indian credit card, your bank will convert to your local currency based on prevailing exchange rates.

8. To ensure the security of your data, please close the browser window once your transaction is completed.

9. There is facility to print application form containing fee details after payment of fees. Guidelines for scanning and Upload’of Photograph (4.5 cm x 3.5 cm) & Signature –

Before applying online a candidate will be required to have a scanned (digital) image of his/ her photograph and signature as per the specifications given below.

Photograph Image: 

– Photograph must be a recent passport style colour picture.

– Make sure that the picture is in colour, taken against a light-coloured, preferably white background.

– Look straight at the camera with a relaxed face.

– If the picture is taken on a sunny day, have the sun behind you, or place yourself in the shade, so that you are not squinting and there are no harsh shadows.

– If you have to use flash; ensure there’s no “redeye”.

– If you wear glasses make sure that there are no reflections and your eyes can be clearly seen.

– Caps, hats and dark glasses are not acceptable. Religious head wear is allowed but it must not cover- your face.

– dimensions 200 x’ 230 pixels (preferred).

– Size of file should be between 20kb and 50 kb.

– Ensure that the size of the scanned image is not more than 50kb. lf the size of the file is more than 50 kb, then adjust the setting of the scanner such as the DPI resolution, no. of colours etc., during the process of scanning.

Signature Image: 

– the applicant has to sign on white paper with Black Ink pen.

– The signature must be signed only by the applicant and not by any other person.

– The signature will used in the Attendance sheet and wherever necessary.

-The applicant’s signature obtained on the call letter and attendance sheet at the time of the examination should match the uploaded signature. In case of mismatch, the applicant may be disqualified.

– Dimensions 140 x 60 pixels (preferred).

– Size of file should be between 10kb – 20kb.

– Ensure that the Size of the scanned image is not more than 20kb.

– Signature in CAPITAL LETTERS shall NOT be accepted,

Scanning the photograph & signature :

– Set the scanner resolution to a minimum’of 200 dpi (dots per inch).

– Set Color to True Color.

– File Size as specified above.

– Crop the image in the scanner to the edge of the photograph/signature, then use the upload editor tp crop the image to the final size (as specified above). .

– The image fife should be JPG or JPEG fO.rmat. An example file name is: image01.jpg or image01 .jpeg Image dimensions can be checked by listing the folder files or moving the mouse over the file image icon.

r Candidates using MS, Windows/MSOffice can easily obtain photo and signature’m .jpeg format not exceeding 50kb & 20kb respectively by using MS Paint or MSOffice Picture Manager. Scanned photograph and signature in any form|t can be saved in .jpg format by using !Save As’ option in the File menu and size can be, reduced below 50 kb (photograph) & 20 kb(signature) by using crop and then resize option (Please see point (i) & (ii) above for the pixel size) in the ‘Image’ menu. Similar options are available in other photo editor also.

– If the file ‘size and format are not’as prescribed, an^ error message will be displayed.

– While filling in the Onlina Applicatiorv Form’the candidate will be provided with a link tQ upload ; his/her photograph and signature. •

Procedure for Uploading the Photograph and Signature –

– There will be two separate links for uploading Photograph and Signature.

– Click on the respective link “Upload Photograph / Signature”.

– Browse and Select the location where the Scanned Photograph / Signature file has been saved.

– Select the-file by clicking on if.

– Click the ‘Open/Upload’ button.

Your Online Application will not be registered unless you upload your photograph and signature as specified.,

In case the face in the photograph or signature is unclear the candidate’s application may be rejected. After, uploading the photograph’/ Signature in the online application form candidates should check that the images are clear and have been uploaded correctly. In case the photograph or signature is not prominently visible, the candidate may edit his / her application and re-upload his/ her photograph or signature, prior to submitting the form.

After registering online candidates are advised to take a printout of their system generated online application forms.

Physical copy of the Application need not be sent to Bank.

Vital dates :

(i) Online Registration & payment of fees : 19.1.17 to 27.1.17.

(ii) Online Test – Tentatively in Feb. 17.

For queries contact: Toll Free Customer Care Number 1800 843 1800 (Toll Free India).

For all further details consult the full text of the Advt. from’website before applying*


GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – Dated: 25th Jan 2017

Q. 1. How many minimum members should be present In Parliament to complete the quorum of the House?

Ans: one-tenth members of the total members.

Q. 2. Which Article says, ‘There will be a Governor for each State In India”?

Ans: Article 53.

Q. 3. Why Is the person of blood group AB called Universal Acceptor?

Ans: The person of blood group AB can receive the blood from all types of blood groups AB, A, B and O, and is therefore called Universal Acceptor.

Q. 4. Why Is cooking quicker In a pressure cooker?

Ans: The boiling point of water (or any other liquid) depends upon the pressure ,on its surface. Steam produced inside the cooker builds up pressure thereby raising the boiling point of water, which results in quick cooking.


Q. 5. Who was Madame Curie?

Ans: She was the French physicist who isolated radium. She jointly with husband Pierre Curie discovered radlurn for which they shared the Nobel Prize in Physics (1903). She won Nobel Prize again for Chemistry In 1911. Her full name was Marie Sklodowska Curie (1867-1934). She was born In Poland.

Q. 6. Which English physician discovered the mechanics of the circulation of blood in 1616 AD?

Ans: William Harvey.

Q. 7. Which number system is commonly used as a shortcut notation for groups of four binary digits?

Ans: Hexadecimal.

Q. 8. What does the acronym YUPPIE stand for?

Ans: Young Urban Professional.

Q. 9. Which was the first country to commence competitive examination in Civil Services?

Ans: China.

Q.10. What is called Tsunami’?

Ans: It is a Japanese word. Tsu means harbour: nami means waves i.e., when a submarine earthquake causes a considerable movement of sections of the Ocean floor, the volume of the marine basin changes great mass of water into motion anql waves of a peculiar called kind Tsunamis are formed on the surface of the ocean.

Q.11. Where is the South Alps Mountain located?

Ans: New Zealand.

Q.12. Which planet is known as ‘Lord of the Heavens’?

Ans: Jupiter.

Q.13. Who wrote David CopperfielcJ, one of the world classics?

Ans: Charles Dickens.

Q.14. Who is called the architect of the Chinese Revolution and founder of the People’s Republic of China?

Ans: Mao Zedong.

Q.15. Where was the German dictator Adolf Hitler born in 1889?

Ans: Austria.

Q.16. ln which year did Mahmud Ghaznavi attack Somnath Temple?

Ans: 1025 AD.

Q.17. Who was the first sovereign ruler of the Sultanate of Delhi?

Ans: lltutmish who belonged to Shamsi dynasty.

Q.18. Who founded the Servants of India Society in 1905?

Ans: Gopal Krishna Gokhale.

Q.19. With which sport/game is P V Sindhu associated?

Ans: Badminton.

Q.20. Badminton is the national sport of which Asian country? ot- ^AK1Tnul

Ans: Malaysia. TO BE CONTINUED



Quiz – Dated: 25th Jan 2017

Q. 1. Against which country did India taste its first Test cricket triumph?

Q. 2. Which type of blood can be given to persons of all types of blood groups?

Q. 3. Why is Anand in Gujarat famous for? Q. 4. In which month do we reap Rabi crops?

Q. 5. To celebrate the 25th anniversary of the Booker Prize, which novel was adjudged the bfest winner In 25 years?

Q. 6. Why is the old Secretariat of Government of West Bengal named as Writers Building’?

Q. 7. On top of which type of tree did Hanuman hide when he visited the Ashoka Vatika to meet Sita?

Q. 8. Which type of train is called Shinkansen in Japan?

Q. 9. Which island country is known as the ‘Land of the Flying Fish”?

Q. 10. Which country does off-spinner Jeetan Patel represent in One-Day cricket?




1. England.

2. O.

3. Dairy product.

4. April.

5. Midnight Children.

6. Because ‘Writer’ was the old name during the British regime for ‘Clerk’. It was in this building that the writers did the administrative correspondence.

7. Sinsapa.

8. Bullet train.

9. Barbados.

10. New Zealand.

Compiled by Z A.


Current Affairs – Dated: 25th Jan 2017

Q. 1. Who Is tha neur Prime Minister of Romania? Ans: Romania’s President has named social-democrat Sorin Grindeanu as the nation’s new Prime Minister recently, bringing to a close weeks of uncertainty since the Left won a parliamentary vote on 11 December, 2016. Q. 2. In which country 39 people were killed during a nightclub massacre when 2017 was Just 75 minutes old In that country?

Ans: Turkey. Two Indians were among the dead at the Relna club in Istanbul.

Q. 3. Name the Google CEO who visited IIT, Kharagpur, his alma mater, after a long gap of 23 years recently.

Ans: Sundar Pichai. This was his first visit to the IIT campus after he completed his B. Tech in 1993. Taking a trip down memory lane, he went to room number B-308 at the Nehru Hall of Residence which was his room once upon a time.


Q. 4. Where was the 14* Pravasl Bharatiya Divas convention held from 7-9 January 2017? .

Ans: It was held at Bengaluru in Karnataka.

Q. 5. Who was the Chief Guest at the 14th Pravasl Bharatiya Divas convention held In Bengaluru from 7-9 January 2017?

Ans: Dr. Antonio Costa was the Chief Guest at the 14th Pravasl Brtaratlya Divas convention held in Bengaluru from 7-9 January 2017.

Q. 6. What the ruling of the Supreme Court In regard to seeking votes on the basis of religion, caste etc? Ans: In a majority verdict, the Supreme Court on 2 January ruled that seeking votes on the basis of religion, race, caste, community, or language of a candidate or his rival or even that of the voter amounts to “corrupt practice” under election law provisions.

A seven-member Constitution Bench headed by Chief Justice T S Thakur, who demitted office on 4 January, by a 4:3 majority judgment, said election was a secular exercise and the functioning of an elected representative too had to be secular.

Pointing out that religion had no place In the electoral process, essentially a secular activity the apex court said the government must be alive to the constitutional ethos and Its obligations to uphold them. Referring to the term his religion’ used in Section 123(3) of the Representation of The People’s (RP) Act, which deals with ‘corrupt practice’, Chief Justice Thakur and three others said It meant the religion and caste of^ all Including voters, candidates and their agents, etc.

Q. 7. How many states will go to Assembly polls between 4 February and 8 March 2017 as announced by the Election Commission of India recently? Elaborate.

Ans: Five. They are Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Goa, Uttarakhand and Manipur. The polling in the sprawling state of UP, which has a 403-member Assembly, will be held in 7 phases between 11 February and 8 March. It will be a one-day exercise in Punjab (4 February), Goa (4 February) and Uttarakhand (15 February). Manipur will have a two-phase polling on 4 and 8 March, The counting of votes in all five states will be done on 11 March, 2017. Over 18 crore voters will exercise their democratic rights for a total of 690 constituencies in five states, for which the Commission has set up 1.85 lakh polling stations, which are 15 per cent more than those set up in 2012 polls. s

With the announcement of the election schedule in the five states on 4 January by the Chief Election Commissioner Dr. Nasim Zaidi, the EC’s Model Code of Conduct (MCC) came into force with immediate effect. The Election Commission has asked news broadcasters to report opinion polls in an accurate, fair and transparent manner, clearly stating methodology, sample size, margin of errors and fieldwork data.

Q. 8. Mr. M K Stalin Is the new working president of which political party In southern India?

Ans: Dravlda Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK). Heralding a generational change in party leadership, DMK supremo Muthuvel Karunanidhi’s younger son and party treasurer M K Stalin was recently appointed the party’s working president that vested him with all powers. He still continues to hold the post of treasurer. Thus, the coronation of apparent heir of Karunanidhi, now 93, Is over in DMK in Tamil Nadu.

Q. 9. What was the response of the RBI In regard to a RTi query regarding demonetization recently?

Ans: Whether views of the chief economic adviser and the finance minister were taken before the sudden announcement of demonetization of high value currency notes by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 8 November? The Resen/e Bank of India felt this query cannot be answered under the Right to Information Act as It does not come under the definition of information under the transparency law.

“Query Is in the nature of seeking opinion from CPIO which is not defined as information as per Section 2(f) of the RTI Act,” the RBI said in response to an RTI query. Asked whether the information sought will fall under “seeking opinion” from the CPIO, former Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) A N Tiwari said, “No. It does not. If Is a fact sought by an RTI applicant, the CPIO cannot say an opinion has been sought from him.”

Q.10. Which Sikh Guru’s 350* birthday celebration was observed In the first week of January 2017?

Ans: Guru Govind Singh, the tenth and last Sikh guru, who founded the Khalsa (pure) sect and didn’t deter to sacrifice his own children for its protection.

Q.11. Where was the Prakash Parv organised to commemorate the 350th birth anniversary of the 10th Sikh guru Guru Gobind Singh recently?

Ans: Patna where the last Sikh guru was born. More than four lakh Sikh devotees from across the country and abroad reached Patna and participated in the event.

Q. 12. Where was the 34th Kalchakra Puja, the most prominent Buddhist ceremony, organised from January 2 – 14, 2017?

Ans: The 12-day long ritual was organised at Bodh Gaya in Bihar, where the Buddha is said to have attained enlightenment more than 2,000 years ago. More than one lakh devotees from across the globe attended the Kalchakra Puja which was conducted by the Tibetan spiritual leader – the Dalai Lama.

Q. 13. Name an acclaimed versatile actor who died In Mumbai at the age of 66 on January 6, 2017. Also elaborate.

Ans: Om Puri, who broke the stereotype of conventional ‘good looking’ Bollywood hero to star in some of Indian cinema’s most memorable films such as Ardh Satya:(for which he won National Award), Aakrosh and City of Joy, died in Mumbai on January 6, 2017 after he suffered a massive heart attack.

The actor was a product of Rim and Television Institute of India and National School of Drama where he first met his friend Naseeruddln Shah decades ago.

Hailing from Ambala in Haryana and bom on 18 October 1950, Puri, a critically acclaimed actor known for his ability to seamlessly transform Into genre-bending roles, made his film debut with the Marathi film Ghashiram Kotwal, adaptation of Vijay Tendulkar’s eponymus play in 1976 and went on to act in several Indian, Pakistani, British and Hollywood mainstream commercial films. He was awarded the Padma Shrl, the country’s fourth highest civilian award, in 1990.

Besides Ardh Satya in which Puri played a police officer full of angst, he also won accolades for his diverse roles in Jaane Bhi Do Yaaron, Mlrch Masala, Aakrosh, Paar and Maachls. Of his latest Hindi movie was Bajrangi Bhaijaan with Salman Khan.

Om Puri also worked in several Hollywood productions.

For him the notable among these was City of Joy as he narrated during Its filming in then Calcutta he met his wife Nandita who was an author/journalist writing for Hindustan Times and The Statesman. They met in 1991 and got married In 1993. The turbulent marriage ended in divorce in 2013.

Once he described Amitabh Bachchan as an “Institution.” The biography titled “Unlikely Hero” is a tell all book in which he admitted he slept with working class women since “I myself was a rag picker used to picking up coal In railway ward.”

Q.14. Why did the Supreme Court sack the BCCI president Anurag Thakur and Its secretary Ajay Shlrke on January 2, 2017?

Ans: The Supreme Court on January 2, 2017 sacked the BCCI president Anurag Thakur and its secretary Ajay Shirke for showing defiance in not complying with Its Orders to implement the R M Lodha Committee reforms even as it issued notices asking them why perjury and contempt proceedings should not be initiated against them.

The apex court ordered the action on the BCCI top brass for not candidly telling It that they had asked for a letter from the ICC that the appointment of a CAG nominee on the BCCI amounted to government interference In its affairs.

Legendary spinner Bishan Singh Bedi has hailed the Supreme Court order.

Q.15. Which tennis star has announced his retirement from competitive tennis recently?

Ans: Somdev Dewarman. Counter-puncher Somdev, at the age of 31, announced his retirement from tennis on 1 January 2017, having represented India in the Davis Cup in 14 ties with 4 wins and 10 defeats in singles. After turning pro in 2008, he reached a’career-high rank of 62 In July, 2011. He ended runner-up in ATP 250 events in 2009 Chennai Open as a wildcard and the 2011 South Africa Open in Johannesburg and those were his best results in his career apart from many wins on the Challenger circuit. He also won the Singles and the Doubles gold medals at the 2010 Asian Games in Guangzhou, China.

He. was conferred the Arjuna Award – the country’s . second highest sporting honour – in 2011.

Q.16. When did Mahendra Singh Dhoni quit as -limited overs captain of the Indian cricket team?

Ans: On January 4, 2017, M S Dhoni – the country’s most successful captain – informed the BCCI he wishes to step down as captain of the team from ODIs and T20 internationals. His stunning announcement recalled his abrupt departure as Test skipper.

Dhoni led India in 199 ODIs, winning 110 at 59.57 winning percentage. In T20Is, he led India in 72 matches, winning 41 at 59.28 winning percentage.

Dhoni led India to the top in all 3 formats – No. 1 Test ranking for 18 months from December 2009, ODI World Cup 2011, T20 World Cup in 2007. He was only cricket captain to have won ODI and T20 World Cups, plus Champions Trophy (2013). His high point was when he was adjudged Man of the Match in 2011 World Cup final, which he finished with a helicopter-shot six.

Q. 17. Against which country would Virat Kohli debut as India’s limited-over captain on being officially anointed captain In all three formats on January 6, 2017?

Ans: England. Virat Kohll – the only Indian captain to register five successive Test series wins and nine Test wins in a year – has praised his predecessor, M S Dhoni in glowing terms on 6 January for being an inspirational leader.

Kohli took to Twitter to express his feelings about the captain under whom he had always played in the limited-over format since making his One-Day Internationals debut in Sri Lanka back in 2008.

Thanks for always being the leader a youngster wants to have around him. You’ll always be my captain ©msdhoni Bhal,” Kohli tweeted.

Q. 18. Which national team has ended the year 2016 as the World No.1 Test side with 120 ranking points of the International Cricket Council (ICC) recently?

Ans: India. Team India ended the year 2016 as the No.1 Test side with 120 ranking points of the International Cricket Council (ICC), 15 points clear of second-placed Australia (105 points) recently.

Q. 19. Which two Indian spinners held on to the top two positions In the International Cricket Council Test Bowlers rankings for the year ended on 31 December 2016?

Ans: Ravichandran Ashwin and Ravindra Jadeja. This is just the second time the top two spots in the bowlers’ chart is occupied by India players with the pair emulating left-arm spinner Bishen Singh Bedi and leg spinner Bhagwath Chandrasekhar, who were ranked one and two in 1974.

Q. 20. Present the full Test Rankings as released by the ICC In Dubai on 31 December, 2016.

Ans: The following is the ICC Test Rankings:

Batsmen: 1. Steve Smith (Australia); 2. Virat Kohli (India); 3. Joe Root (England); 4. Kane Williamson (New Zealand); 5. David Warner (Australia); 6. Azhar Ali (Pakistan); 7,Hashim Amla (South Africa); 8. AB De Villiers (South Africa); 9. Quinton de Kock (South Africa); 10. Chhatteswar Pujara (India).

Bowlers: 1 .Ravichandran Ashwin (India); 2. Ravindra Jadeja (India); 3. Rangana Herath (Sri Lanka); 4. Dale Steyn (South Africa); 5. Josh Hazlewood (Australia); 6. James Anderson (England); 7. Stuart Broad (England); 8. Mitchell Stare (Australia); 9. Vemon Philander (South Africa); 10. N. Wagner (New Zealand).

All-rounders: 1 .Ravichandran Ashwin (India); 2. Shakib Al Hasan (Bangladesh); 3. Ravindra Jadeja (India); 4. Ben Stokes (England); 5. Moeen Ali (England).



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